Neutrality and normativity have both attracted attention in the recent philosophy of logic. In this paper I ask: can we consistently hold that logic is both non-neutral and non-normative when it comes to logics for normative sentences? (e.g. deontic logics.) If these fail to be neutral won’t they commit themselves on questions of substantive normative theory? That would seem to make logic—at least this part of it—normative after all.